REVIEW OF BIOLOGY I

Review of 10 Biology

Are you ready for Human Anatomy and Physiology?

1. Enzymes
a) increase the amount of energy in a reaction
b) catalyze only exergonic reactions

c) decrease the amount of energy in a reaction

d) reduce the activation energy needed for a reaction

2. When water dissociates, it forms

a) H⁺ ions and H₂O
b) H₃O⁺ ions and OH^- ions

c) H⁺ ions and H₃O⁺ ions

d) OH⁺ ions and H₃O^- ions

3. A solution with a pH above 7 is

a) logarithmic
b) acidic

c) neutral

d) alkaline

4. In chemical reactions, the number of each kind of atom in the reactants is

a) the same as in the products
b) less than in the products

c) less if the reaction is exergonic

d) more if the reaction is exergonic

5. When hereditary information from different organism is Not combined it is called

a) asexual reproduction
b) development

c) sexual reproduction

d) differentiation

6. ATP releases energy when

a) it undergoes a condensation reaction
b) a phosphate group is added to it

c) a hydroxyl group is added to it

d) a phosphate group is removed from it

7. The breakdown of polymers into monomers occurs through a process known as

a) hydrolysis
b) condensation

c) dissociation

d) removal of a functional group

8. Fats, oils, waxes, and steroids are all

a) lipids
b) carbohydrates

c) human energy sources

d) food

9. The simplest part of an element is called a

a) atom
b) molecule

c) compound

d) proton

10. The gaining of an electron is called

a) reduction
b) oxidation

c) endergonic reaction

d) exergonic reaction

11. One of the kinds of particles found in the nucleus of an atom is the

a) proton
b) ion

c) electron

d) boron

12. The state of matter in which particles move the most rapidly is

a) liquid
b) solid

c) gas

d) heat

13. A redox reaction

a) involves the transfer of electrons between atoms
b) results in a net gain of electrons for reactants

c) occurs between atoms with filled outer energy levels

d) does not involve transfer of energy

14. The monomer of nucleic acids is called a(n)

a) polymer
b) fatty acid

c) amino acid

d) nucleotide

15. The monomer of a protein is called a(n)

a) glucose
b) nucleotide

c) amino acid

d) fatty acid

16. The attractive force between like particles is called

a) cohesion
b) adhesion

c) condensation

d) hydrolysis

17. Water is an effective solvent because

a) it is a polar molecule
b) it dissolves ionic compounds

c) it dissolves other polar substances

d) All of the above

18. A monomer is a small, building block of a(n)

a) atom
b) molecule

c) nucleus

d) ion

19. Water helps keep the temperature of living things

a) high
b) low

c) below the freezing point

d) stable

20. The element that readily bonds to itself, forming long chains and rings, is

a) hydrogen
b) nitrogen

c) carbon

d) oxygen

21. Two characteristics of acids are

a) taste bitter; highly corrosive
b) highly corrosive; taste sour

c) taste sour; feel slippery

d) feel slippery; taste bitter

22. A species is a group of organisms in the same area that can

a) reproduce
b) form prey-predator relations

c) become extinct

d) coexist

23. Ultimately, almost all living organisms get their energy from

a) water
b) wind

c) the sun

d) eating other organisms

24. Reproduction results either in a duplication of the parent or in

a) a duplication with variation
b) duplication of previous generations

c) an unrelated organism

d) none of the above

25. Which of the following conditions is necessary for a species to survive?

a) All its organisms must reproduce
b) Some of its organisms must reproduce

c) All of its organisms must live in the same place

d) All of its organisms must live to old age

26. The most important function of nucleic acids is

a) catalyzing chemical reactions
b) storing energy

c) forming a barrier between the inside and outside of a cell

d) storing information related to heredity and protein synthesis

27. Most enzymes

a) are changed by the reactions they catalyze
b) strengthen the chemical bonds in their substrate

c) increase the activation energy of the reaction they catalyze

d) are not changed by the reactions they catalyze

28. A bond that forms between a positively charged hydrogen atom of one molecule and a negative charged region of another molecule is a(n)

a) ionic bond
b) hydrogen bond

c) covalent bond

d) basic bond

29. Organic molecules that catalyze reactions in living systems are called

a) phospholipids
b) enzymes

c) polysaccharides

d) steroids

30. A compound found in living things that supplies the energy in one of its chemical bonds directly to cells is

a) DNA
b) RNA

c) ADP

d) ATP

31. An acid is a solution with more

a) hydronium ions than hydroxide ions
b) hydroxide ions than hydronium ions

c) sodium ions than hydroxide ions

d) hydroxide ions than sodium ions

32. An attachment between atoms that results from the atoms sharing one or more pairs of electrons is a(n)

a) ionic bond
b) reduction reaction

c) covalent bond

d) oxidation reaction

33. The amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction is the reaction's

a) mechanical energy
b) free energy

c) chemical energy

d) activation energy

34. What is a peptide bond?

a) an amino acid glycerin group
b) an amino acid hydrogen group

c) a covalent bond between a polymer and lipid

d) a covalent bond between two amino acids

35. Two characteristics of bases are

a) taste bitter; highly corrosive
b) highly corrosive; taste sour

c) taste sour; feel slippery

d) feel slippery; taste bitter

36. The breaking apart of large molecules into smaller ones is called

a) cohesion
b) condensation reaction

c) adhesion

d) hydrolysis

37. The attractive force between unlike particles is called

a) cohesion
b) condensation reaction

c) adhesion

d) hydrolysis

38. This forms large molecules from smaller ones

a) cohesion
b) condensation reaction

c) hydrolysis

d) adhesion

39. The loss of an electron is called

a) reduction
b) oxidation

c) compound

d) molecule

40. Chemical reactions that involve a Net Release of free energy are called

a) endergonic reactions
b) exergonic reaction

c) reduction

d) oxidation

41. The production of offspring is called

a) evolve
b) differentiation

c) reproduction

d) resolution

42. An organism that makes its own food is a(n)

a) heterotroph
b) consumer

c) autotroph

d) homeostasis

43. The sum of all chemical processes that occur in an organism is called

a) metabolism
b) growth

c) development

d) homeostasis

44. The approximately 40 million types of living things on Earth are known as

a) factors
b) organisms

c) phyla

d) biosphere

45. The most important driving force in evolution is

a) natural selection
b) heterotrophy

c) autotrophy

d) asexual reproduction

46. The process by which an adult organism arises is called

a) fertilization
b) metabolism

c) development

d) aging

47. The hereditary material in living things is

a) CDC
b) SEM

c) TEM

d) DNA

48. Na+ represents a(n)

a) gain of electrons
b) gain of protons

c) lose of electrons

d) lose of protons

49. The combination of genetic information from two individuals occurs during

a) asexual reproduction
b) sexual reproduction

c) development

d) differentiation

50. Matter is defined as anything that occupies space and

a) has mass
b) is not living

c) is alive

d) can be seen

51. The monomer of many polysaccharides is

a) fatty acid
b) glucose

c) amino acid

d) cohesion

52. A redox reaction

a) involves the transfer of electrons between atoms
b) occurs between atoms with filled outer energy levels

c) results in a net gain of electrons for reactants

d) does not involve transfer of energy

53. Sharing of electrons in the outer energy level of two atoms

a) results in ion formation
b) occurs in covalent bonds

c) only occurs if both are atoms of the same element

d) is found only among carbon atoms

54. All matter in the universe is composed of

a) cells
b) molecules

c) atoms

d) carbon

55. The electrons of an atom

a) are found in the nucleus
b) orbit the nucleus in various energy levels

c) have a positive charge

d) have a neutral charge

56. Cl^- represents a(n)

a) gain of electrons
b) gain of protons

c) lose of electrons

d) lose of protons

57. If an atom is made up of 6 protons, 7 neutrons, and 6 electrons, then its atomic number is

a) 19
b) 13

c) 7

d) 6

58. The component of many lipids is

a) fatty acid
b) nucleotide

c) amino acid

d) glucose

59. A substance that neutralizes small amounts of acids or bases added to a solution is a(n)

a) alkaline substance
b) catalyst

c) solvent

d) buffer

60. An ionic bond forms whenever ions with opposite charges

a) repel each other
b) form atoms

c) attract each other

d) form elements

61. What is a solution?

a) an uneven mixture of two substances
b) the breaking of a chemical bond

c) a chemical reaction

d) a uniform mixture of two substances

62. Which is the dissolving substances in a solution?

a) the solvent
b) the solute

c) the mixture

d) the isotope

63. A measurement of the concentration of hydronium ions and hydroxide ions in a solution is

a) the pH scale
b) the base

c) the universal solvent

d) the polar molecule

64. Polysaccharides are giant polymers consisting of thousands of linked

a) monosaccharides
b) fat molecules

c) ethers

d) proteins

65. A peptide is a compound consisting of two or more

a) amino acids
b) lipids

c) sugars

d) steroids

66. Special proteins that speed up the chemical reactions in a cell are called

a) acids
b) enzymes

c) sites

d) casein

67. The smallest particle of an element that has all the element's properties is a(n)

a) compound
b) atom

c) molecule

d) nucleus

68. Chemical reactions that involve a Net Absorption of free energy are called

a) endergonic reactions
b) exergonic reactions

c) oxidation

d) reduction

69. An attachment between atoms that results from the atoms sharing one or more pairs of electrons is a(n)

a) ionic bond
b) covalent bond

c) reduction reaction

d) oxidation reaction

70. What are three particles that make up an atom?

a) protons, neutrons, and isotopes
b) protons, neutrons, and electrons

c) neutrons, isotopes, and electrons

d) positives, negatives, and electrons

71. Organic compounds contain

a) only carbon
b) only carbon and hydrogen

c) carbon and usually other elements

d) many kinds of elements except carbon

72. A pure substance composed of two or more elements is called a

a) atom
b) element

c) compound

d) molecule

73. Sodium chloride (table salt) is an example of a compound formed by

a) covalent bonding
b) oxidation

c) ionic bonding

d) reduction

74. The land, water, and air on Earth that sustains life are known as the

a) species
b) ecosystem

c) biosphere

d) environment

75. The atomic number of an atom is 12. Therefore, the number of protons in the atom equals

a) 3
b) 6

c) 8

d) 12

76. Ions

a) always have a negative charge
b) always have a positive charge

c) have unequal number of protons and electrons

d) have unequal number of protons and neutrons

77. To maintain their internal organization, all living things must have a constant supply of

a) oxygen
b) carbon dioxide

c) water

d) energy

78. Reproduction involves the transfer of genetic information from

a) autotroph to heterotroph
b) offspring to parents

c) parents to offspring

d) unicellular organisms to multicellular organisms

79. The stable internal environment maintained by living things is called

a) homeostasis
b) differentiation

c) adaptation

d) interdependence

80. Which of the following represents the correct order of states of matter from that having the slowest moving particles to having the fastest moving particles?

a) gas, liquid, solid
b) solid, gas, liquid

c) liquid, solid, gas

d) solid, liquid, gas

81. What is the smallest unit of life capable of carrying out all life functions?

a) organ
b) cell

c) molecule

d) tissue

82. Biology is the study of

a) animals
b) plants and animals

c) all living things

d) energy transfer

83. The nucleus of carbon atoms contain

a) negatively charged electrons
b) positively charged protons

c) neutrons, which have no electrical charge

d) both protons and neutrons

84. In order to become chemically stable, atoms must

a) gain eight electrons
b) lose eight electrons

c) have a filled outer energy level

d) share electrons with other atoms

85. A short segment of DNA that contains instructions for the development of a single trait of an organism is known as a

a) DNA loop
b) gene

c) library

d) membrane

86. As the cells in a multicellular organism multiply, they become different from each other in a process called

a) sexual reproduction
b) descent with modification

c) photosynthesis

d) differentiation

87. The atomic number of carbon is 6. Therefore, the number of protons in a carbon atom equals

a) 3
b) 8

c) 6

d) 12

88. An organism that must take in food is called a(n)

a) heterotroph
b) producer

c) homeostasis

d) autotroph

89. Charged particles that move around an atom's nucleus are

a) electrons
b) ions

c) protons

d) neutrons

90. The concentration of a solution is the measurement of the amount of

a) acid dissolved in a fixed amount of base
b) solute dissolved in a fixed amount of the solution

c) solvent dissolved in a fixed amount of solution

d) solvent dissolved in a fixed amount of the solute

91. The transport of molecules against a concentrated gradient, which requires energy, is called

a) passive transport
b) osmosis

c) facilitated diffusion

d) active transport

92. Which molecules would diffuse faster?

a) small molecules, low temperature
b) large molecules, high temperature

c) small molecules, high temperature

d) large molecules, low temperature

93. The bursting of cells is called

a) plasmolysis
b) phagocytosis

c) cytolysis

d) pinocytosis

94. Concentration of solutes inside and outside the cell are equal when the solution is

a) isotonic
b) hypotonic

c) hypertonic

d) isometric

95. The process of diffusion requires

a) a cell membrane
b) a difference in the concentration throughout a space

c) an aqueous solution

d) All of the above.

96. The contractile vacuole of a paramecium should be active when the paramecium is in a(n) ___ environment.

a) isotonic
b) hypotonic

c) hypertonic

d) any

97. If the molecular concentration of a substance is the same throughout space, the substance

a) has a large concentration gradient
b) will undergo diffusion

c) is in equilibrium

d) will undergo osmosis

98. A membrane is selectively permeable if it lets

a) all material pass through
b) materials go in but not out

c) only some materials pass through

d) materials go out but not in

99. What product of the light reactions of photosynthesis is released and does not participate further in photosynthesis?

a) ATP
b) NADPH

c) H2O, water

d) O2, oxygen

100. Where does the energy for the Calvin cycle originate?

a) ATP and NADPH produced by light reactions
b) O2 produced by the light reactions

c) only some materials pass through

d) photons of light

101. During photosynthesis, a reduction reaction

a) adds electrons to a molecule
b) subtracts electrons from a molecule

c) oxidizes a molecule

d) destroys a molecule

102. Diffusion is a term for the movement of molecules from

a) an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
b) an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

c) an adjacent area to a gradient area

d) a nucleus to the mitochondria

103. In a hypotonic solution, the concentration of solutes is lower than the

a) concentration of solutes inside the cell
b) concentration of osmosis in the membrane

c) concentration of solutes outside the cell

d) concentration of diffusion in the membrane

104. Molecules that are too large to cross a cell membrane are carried by

a) hypotonic solution
b) bulk transport

c) isotonic solution

d) hypertonic solution

105. Substances that can pass through cell membranes by simple diffusion include

a) Na⁺ ions
b) Cl^- ions

c) CO₂

d) glucose

106. Pinocytosis involves the transport of

a) large particles out of a cell
b) whole cells into another cell

c) fluids into a cell

d) fluids out of a cell

107. A relatively low solute concentration is called

a) hypertonic
b) hypotonic

c) isotonic

d) osmosis

108. The photosystems and electron transport chains are located in the

a) outer chloroplast membrane
b) thylakoid membrane

c) inner chloroplast membrane

d) stroma

109. A cell membrane is a thin layer of lipid and

a) monosaccharides
b) protein

c) chitin

d) water

110. Cell membranes are made of two phospholipid layers called a

a) bilayer
b) hydrophilic

c) polarity

d) semilayer

111. The uptake of large particles by a cell is known as

a) phagocytosis
b) pinocytosis

c) cytolysis

d) plasmolysis

112. The cell organelle that organizes protein synthesis is

a) mitochondria
b) ribosomes

c) ER

d) lysosomes

113. The organelle that prepares proteins for export and synthesizes steroids is the

a) mitochondrion
b) ribosomes

c) ER

d) lysosomes

115. The concentration of dissolved substances is lower in a(n)______ solution than the concentration inside the cell.

a) hypertonic
b) hypotonic

c) isotonic

d) osmosis

116. The part of the cell that regulates movement of substances into and out of the cell is the

a) nucleus
b) cell membrane

c) Golgi apparatus

d) mitochondrion

117. A cell must expend energy to transport substances using

a) cell membrane pumps
b) facilitated diffusion

c) ion channels

d) osmosis

118. The fluid mosaic model presents the modern view of

a) a membrane's structure
b) chromosomes

c) aggregates of cells

d) the nucleus

119. A the end of photosystem I transport chain, electrons

a) combine with NADP+ to form NADPH
b) are ejected out of the membrane, into the stroma

c) combine with ADP to form ATP

d) enter photosystem II

120. The condition in which there is a continuous movement of molecules but no overall
change in concentration is called

a) facilitated diffusion
b) equilibrium

c) osmosis

d) diffusion

121. The movement of large particles of solid food or whole cells into the cell is called

a) phagocytosis
b) pinocytosis

c) cytolysis

d) plasmolysis

122. Viruses, bacteria, and old organelles that a cell ingest are broken down in

a) ribosomes
b) lysosomes

c) the rough ER

d) the smooth ER

123. One difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that only

a) prokaryotic cells are surrounded by a cell membrane
b) eukaryotic cells have genetic information

c) prokaryotic cells have a nucleus

d) eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles

124. When a human red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic environment, it will

a) undergo cytolysis
b) experience a decrease in turgor pressure

c) undergo plasmolysis

d) be at equilibrium

125. The energy needed to power the sodium-potassium pump is provided by the

a) binding of ATP to the pump
b) splitting ATP

c) transport of ATP by the pump

d) formation of ATP

126. Most of the time, the environment that plant cells live in is

a) isotonic
b) hypertonic

c) hypotonic

d) None of the above

127. Because the phospholipid molecules and some proteins are free to move, the plasma membrane is said to be a

a) bilayer
b) solid

c) fluid mosaic

d) fatty acid

128. For every three molecules of CO2 that enters the Calvin cycle, the cycle produces one molecule of

a) RuBP
b) PGA

c) PGAL

d) NADPH

129. The concentration of dissolved substances is higher in a(n) _______ solution than the concentration inside the cell.

a) isotonic
b) hypertonic

c) hypotonic

d) cytolysis

130. As light intensity increases, the rate of photosynthesis

a) continues to decrease
b) continues to increase

c) transport of ATP by the pump

d) initially increases and then levels off

131. The name of the three-carbon molecule in the Calvin Cycle

a) RuBP
b) PGA

c) PGAL

d) NADPH

132. Type of pigments that absorb blue and green light are

a) chlorophylls
b) carotenoids

c) PGAL

d) visible spectrum

133. The pressure that builds up in a plant cell as a result of osmosis is ______ pressure

a) turgor
b) kinetic

c) potential

d) gained

134. When the cells in a plant have low turgor pressure, the plant

a) is rigid
b) dies

c) wilts

d) explodes

135. A concentration difference across space is called a (n)

a) plasmolysis
b) concentration gradient

c) isotonic

d) phagocytosis

136. The uptake of solutes or fluids is called

a) plasmolysis
b) phagocytosis

c) pinocytosis

d) cytolysis

137. A relatively high solute concentration is called

a) hypertonic
b) hypotonic

c) isotonic

d) cytolysis

138. A type of transport in which water moves across a membrane and down its concentration gradient is

a) simple diffusion
b) facilitated diffusion

c) diffusion through ion channels

d) osmosis

139. Prokaryotes are organisms whose cells contain No

a) nucleus
b) cell membrane

c) eukaryotes

d) bilayers

140. Particles of wastes are moved from inside the cell to the outside by means of

a) phagocytosis
b) passive transport

c) facilitated diffusion

d) exocytosis

141. What is the liquid between the cell membrane and the nucleus called?

a) organelles
b) cytoplasm

c) nucleoli

d) vacuoles

142. What are organisms with cells that contain a nucleus or nuclei?

a) eukaryotes
b) prokaryotes

c) ribosomes

d) nucleoli

143. The shrinking of cells is known as

a) cytolysis
b) pinocytosis

c) plasmolysis

d) phagocytosis

144. What is the term for the ability to perform work?

a) heterotrophy
b) expenditure

c) energy

d) autotrophy

145. Animals that Cannot make their own food are

a) heterotroph
b) autotrophs

c) photosynthesizes

d) grana

146. Which are Not autotrophs?

a) animals
b) plants

c) algae

d) some prokaryotes

147. Chlorophyll a

a) absorbs mostly orange-red and blue-violet light
b) is responsible for the red color of many autumn leaves

c) is an accessory pigment

d) absorbs mostly green light

148. The energy that is used to establish the proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane comes from the

a) synthesis of ATP
b) passage of electrons along the electron transport chain in photosystem II

c) synthesis of NADPH

d) splitting of water

149. Sodium-potassium pumps

a) move Na+ ions and K+ ions into cells
b) move Na+ ions out of cells and K+ ions into cells

c) move Na+ ions and K+ ions out of cells

d) move Na+ ions into cells and K+ ions out of cells

150. Carbon atoms are fixed into organic compounds in

a) the Calvin cycle
b) the light reactions

c) electron transport chain

d) photosystems I and II

151. Organic compounds that can be made from the products of the Calvin cycle include

a) only carbohydrates
b) only amino acids

c) only lipids

d) carbohydrates, amino acids, and lipids

152. Both photosystem I and photosystem II

a) receive electrons from other photosystems
b) donate protons to each other

c) donate electrons to a transport chain that generates NADPH

d) contain chlorophyll a molecules

153. Which is Not a principle of the cell theory?

a) All matter consist of at least one cell.
b) All cells arise from preexisting cells.

c) Cells are the basic units of life.

d) All organisms are made of one or more cells.

154. The "blueprints" in a cell that control all its activity are the

a) eukaryotes
b) vacuoles

c) chromosomes

d) ribosomes

155. What are the membrane bound sacs that package and secrete cell products?

a) Golgi apparatus
b) ATP

c) mitochondria

d) lysosomes

156. Unlike animals cells, plant cells have

a) cell membranes
b) mitochondria

c) cell walls

d) chromosomes

157. The diffusion of water molecules through a membrane and down its concentration gradient is called

a) simple diffusion
b) facilitated diffusion

c) diffusion through ion channels

d) osmosis

158. Accessory pigments differ from chlorophyll a, in that they

a) absorb all wavelengths of light
b) are not directly involved in the light reactions of photosynthesis

c) absorb only yellow and orange light

d) have no function in photosynthesis

159. Stroma are a gel-like matrix that surrounds the

a) thylakoids
b) chlorophylls

c) pathways

d) mitochondria

160. A cluster of pigment molecules is called a(n)

a) carotenoids
b) biochemical pathways

c) photosystem

d) chlorophylls

161. The protein that adds a phosphate group to ADP is

a) PGAL
b) RuBP

c) ATP synthase

d) carotenoids

162. The components of visible light are called the

a) photosystem
b) biochemical pathway

c) carotenoids

d) visible spectrum

163. Cell that have high energy requirement generally have many

a) nuclei
b) flagella

c) mitochondria

d) microfilaments

164. Microfilaments and microtubules

a) contain digestive enzymes
b) function in cell structure and movement

c) are sites of protein synthesis

d) are sites of photosynthesis

165. The energy of motion is

a) ATP
b) potential energy

c) active energy

d) kinetic energy

166. The concentration of dissolved substances is a (n) _____ solution is the same as the concentration of dissolved substances inside the cell.

a) hypertonic
b) hypotonic

c) isotonic

d) osmosis

167. The cell organelle that processes and packages substances produced by the cell is

a) mitochondria
b) ribosomes

c) Golgi apparatus

d) ER

168. The cell organelle that digests molecules, old organelles, and foreign substances is

a) mitochondria
b) ER

c) Golgi apparatus

d) lysosomes

169. To produce the same amount of carbohydrate, C4 plants require less

a) ATP than C3 plants
b) carbon dioxide than C3 plants

c) water than C3 plants

d) RuBP than C3 plants

170. Which of the following environmental factors will cause a rapid decline in the photosynthesis rate if the factor rises above a certain level?

a) light intensity
b) temperature

c) carbon dioxide

d) oxygen

171. Glucose can cross a cell membrane by using

a) diffusion
b) facilitated diffusion

c) ion channels

d) osmosis

172. The light reactions take place

a) on the outer membrane of the chloroplast
b) in the stroma

c) in the cytosol

d) on the thylakoid membrane

173. Plasmolysis of a human red blood cell would occur if the cell were in a(n)

a) isotonic solution
b) hypertonic solution

c) hypotonic solution

d) None of the above

174. Protons are moved into the thylakoid using energy from

a) ATP
b) electrons in the transport chain

c) NADPH

d) the sun's heat

175. The Calvin cycle begins when CO2 combines with a five-carbon carbohydrate called

a) RuBP
b) PGA

c) PGAL

d) NADPH

176. Minerals in the soil are transported into the roots of plants by

a) passive transport
b) a gradient

c) plasmolysis

d) active transport

177. Water participates directly in the light reactions of photosynthesis by

a) donating electrons to NADPH
b) accepting electrons from the electron transport chain

c) donating electrons to photosystem II

d) accepting electrons from ADP

178. A series of linked chemical reactions is called a

a) carotenoids
b) biochemical pathway

c) photosystem

d) visible spectrum

179. Facilitated diffusion is often used to transport

a) ions
b) water

c) molecules that are too small to diffuse across the membrane

d) molecules that are not soluble in lipids

180. The cell organelle that transfers energy to ATP is

a) mitochondria
b) ER

c) nucleus

d) Golgi apparatus

181. A structure that can move excess water out of unicellular organisms is a

a) carrier protein
b) contractile vacuole

c) ion channel

d) cell membrane pump

182. Exocytosis is a

a) type of passive transport
b) mechanism by which cells ingest other cells

c) transport process in which vesicles are formed from pouches in the cell membrane

d) way for cells to release large molecules, such as proteins

183. The cell organelle that stores DNA and synthesizes RNA

a) mitochondria
b) rough ER

c) ribosomes

d) nucleus

184. Disk-shaped structures with photosynthetic pigments are known as

a) Krebs cycle
b) thylakoids

c) carbohydrates

d) synthesizers

185. The process by which autotrophs convert sunlight into energy is called

a) photosynthesis
b) oxidation

c) pigmentation

d) photosystemizing

186. A molecule that can absorb certain light wavelengths and reflect others is a

a) photosystem
b) matrix

c) refractory structure

d) pigment

187. What are the most common group of photosynthetic pigments in plants?

a) chloroplasts
b) stroma

c) chlorophylls

d) thylakoids

188. During chemiosmosis

a) ATP is synthesized from ADP
b) water is broken down

c) NADPH is synthesized from NADP+

d) electrons are removed from chlorophyll molecules

189. C3 and C4 plants differ in terms of the number of

a) steps in the Calvin Cycle
b) carbon atoms in the compound that CO2 is initially incorporated into

c) carbon atoms in the end product of the Calvin cycle

d) ATP molecules used in the Calvin cycle

190. What are flagella?

a) long, whiplike projections
b) bundles of chloroplasts

c) short, hairlike projections

d) central vacuoles

191. A prokaryote has

a) a nucleus
b) a cell membrane

c) membrane bound organelles

d) All of the above

192. Net movement of water across a cell membrane occurs

a) from a hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution
b) from an isotonic solution to another isotonic solution

c) from a hypertonic solution to a hypotonic solution

d) through gated water channels

193. All forms of passive transport depend on

a) energy from the cell in the form of ATP
b) the kinetic energy of molecules

c) carrier proteins

d) ion channels

194. Chemosynthesis

a) is photosynthesis that is carried out by bacteria rather than plants
b) is performed by heterotrophic bacteria

c) enables the synthesis of organic molecules using energy from inorganic molecules

d) cannot manufacture their own food

195. Nitrogen fixing bacteria

a) repair nitrogen damaged legume roots
b) damage the environment by using atmospheric oxygen to produce toxic nitrogen compounds

c) convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia

d) convert ammonia in the soil into nitrogen gas

196. The period of cell growth prior to division is called

a) replication
b) anaphase

c) reproduction

d) interphase

197. The period during which DNA is copied is called

a) prophase
b) S phase

c) G1 phase

d) G2 phase

198. The production of offspring from one parent is called

a) sexual reproduction
b) cleavage furrow

c) asexual reproduction

d) interphase

199. The division of the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell is called

a) mitosis
b) binary fission

c) cytokinesis

d) cytoplasmic streaming

200. During mitosis and meiosis, kinetochore fibers are thought to

a) control cytokinesis
b) make centromeres

c) move chromosomes

d) join chromatids

201. A process by which two living bacteria bind together and transfer genetic information is called

a) conjugation
b) transformation

c) transduction

d) encapsulation

202. Meiosis II

a) is preceded by copying of DNA
b) separates chromatids into opposite poles of the cell

c) separates homologous chromosomes into opposite poles of the cell

d) produces diploid offspring cells

203. During crossing over, portions of chromatids

a) double the amount of DNA in each chromosome
b) move from autosomes to sex chromosomes

c) break off and attach to adjacent chromosomes on the homologous chromosome

d) separate from each other and move to opposite poles of the cell

204. Which happens during meiosis II?

a) telophase I stops
b) anaphase I continues

c) daughter cells divide for the second time

d) chromosomes become thick and visible

205. One structure you would NOT find in a bacteria cell is a

a) cell wall
b) cell membrane

c) mitochondrion

d) chromosome

206. The phases in the life of a cell are called

a) interphase
b) replication

c) the cell cycle

d) meiosis

207. Archaebacteria and eubacteria are placed in separate kingdoms because archaebacteria

a) lack cell membranes
b) evolved after eubacteria evolved

c) have cell walls that contain peptidoglycan

d) have some genes that closely resemble those found in eukaryotes

208. Bacteria can survive

a) near volcanic vents
b) beneath ice

c) in layers of infertile soil

d) All of the above.

209. The breakdown of pyruvic acid in the presence of oxygen is called

a) glycolysis
b) fermentation

c) aerobic respiration

d) anaerobic respiration

210. The first pathway of cellular respiration is called

a) fermentation
b) aerobic respiration

c) glycolysis

d) anaerobic respiration

211. Which of the following is a unit of energy?

a) kilocalorie
b) cytosol

c) glycolysis

d) NAD⁺

212. In the scientific name Homo sapiens, sapiens is the name of the

a. division
b. genus

c. kingdom

d. species

213. The largest taxon is a

a. family
b. species

c. kingdom

d. phylum

214. The smallest taxon is a

a. kingdom
b. species

c. family

d. phylum

215. Glycolysis uses energy from two molecules of ATP but forms ___ molecules of ATP.

a) two
b) three

c) four

d) eight

216. An ancestry diagram made by grouping organisms according to their shared derived characteristics is called a

a. phylogenic tree
b. taxonomic category

c. phylum

d. cladogram

217. A modern systematic taxonomist would likely consider the following when classifying and organism

a. behavior, morphology, embryology, and habitat
b. fossil record, morphology, embryological development, and macromolecules

c. fossil record, macromolecules, habitat, and embryological development

d. fossil record, morphology, embryological development, and habitat

218. Yeast produce alcohol and CO₂ in the process of

a) lactic acid fermentation
b) aerobic respiration

c) alcoholic fermentation

d) glycolysis

219. What is the process by which glucose is converted to pyruvic acid

a) electron transport
b) aerobic respiration

c) glycolysis

d) photosynthesis

220. Archaebacteria called chemosynthesizers use inorganic compounds as a(n)

a) energy source
b) habitat

c) sulfur-storing site

d) host

221. Which of the following bacteria are thought to be responsible for establishing Earth's oxygen rich atmosphere?

a) methanogens
b) extreme halophiles

c) cyanobacteria

d) spirochetes

222. On what basis have bacteria traditionally been classified?

a) shape
b) response to Gram staining

c) type of respiration

d) All of the above.

223. The type of bacteria which peptidoglycan is absent in cell walls

a) eubacteria
b) photoautotrophs

c) archaebacteria

d) actinomycetes

224. The exchange of genes between pairs of homologous chromosomes is called

a) crossing over
b) meiosis I

c) homologous pairing

d) crossing back

225. Each protein in an organism is coded for by an individual

a) gene
b) chromosome

c) chromatid

d) gamete

226. Genetic recombination in bacteria

a) is a form of sexual reproduction
b) includes transformation and transduction

c) includes transformation and translation

d) always requires a conjugation bridge

227. What is the term for using a virus to transfer DNA from one bacteria cell to another?

a) transformation
b) transduction

c) conjugation

d) plasmid reduction

228. In cellular respiration, the most energy is transferred in which step?

a) glycolysis
b) electron transport chain

c) Krebs cycle

d) fermentation

229. The branch of Biology that names and groups organisms according to their characteristics and evolutionary history is

a. nomenclature
b. classification

c. hierarchy

d. taxonomy

230. To avoid confusion, scientific names for organisms are all

a. according to country
b. taxon

c. official and international

d. in three languages

231. A system that ranks categories from the broadest to the most specific can be thought of as a

a. hierarchy
b. homologous structure

c. nomenclature

d. kingdom

232. Identifying organisms by their genus and species names is called

a. trinomial nomenclature
b. ancestral nomenclature

c. "one-name naming"

d. binomial nomenclature

233. An end product of alcoholic fermentation is

a) glucose
b) oxygen

c) carbon dioxide

d) lactic acid

234. Which is a product in the aerobic breakdown of a glucose molecule?

a) water
b) oxygen

c) light

d) alcohol

235. The Net Number of ATP molecules made directly by glycolysis is

a) 2
b) 6

c) 32

d) 38

236. The two-name system of classifying organisms was developed by

a. Bill Clinton
b. Thomas Edison

c. Aristotle

d. Carolus Linnaeus

237. The kingdom that includes prokaryotes is

a. Archaebacteria
b. Fungi

c. Protista

d. Plantae

238. Which is NOT a phase of mitosis?

a) prophase
b) biphase

c) metaphase

d) telophase

239. Crossing over results in genetic recombination by

a) reducing the original cell's chromosomes number in half
b) randomly separating the maternal and paternal chromosomes

c) mixing half the maternal chromosomes with half the paternal chromosomes

d) permitting the exchange of genetic material between maternal and paternal chromosomes

240. The two end products of alcoholic fermentation are

a) ethyl alcohol and pyruvic acid
b) ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide

c) carbon dioxide and glucose

d) pyruvic acid and glucose

241. The anaerobic pathways provide enough energy to meet all of the energy needs of

a) all organisms
b) no organisms

c) all unicellular and most multicellular organisms

d) many unicellular and some multicellular organisms

242. In the scientific name Acer rubrum, Acer is the name of the

a. species
b. genus

c. kingdom

d. order

243. Which of the following types of bacteria would you be most likely to find in the human intestinal tract?

a) spirochete
b) cyanobacteria

c) thermoacidophile

d) enteric bacterium

244. Which of the following might be found in the cytoplasm of a bacteria cell

a) chloroplast
b) Golgi bodies

c) mitochondria

d) ribosomes

245. Bacteria cells have

a) a cell wall only
b) a cell membrane only

c) both a cell membrane and an outer cell wall

d) a cell wall inside of their cell membrane

246. Which of the following is Not a bacterial structure that provides the type of movement indicated?

a) pilus-crawling motion
b) slime layer-gliding

c) flagellum-turning and tumbling while moving

d) spiral shaped-corkscrew motion

247. Bacteria that obtain energy from dead organisms are

a) photoautotrophic bacteria
b) chemoautotrophic bacteria

c) saprophytic bacteria

d) methanogens

248. During anaphase, the sister chromatids

a) separate from each other
b) join together

c) condense and become thicker

d) become attached to spindle fibers

249. The cell begins to pinch in two and cytokinesis begins during

a) prophase
b) telophase

c) anaphase

d) metaphase

250. Aerobic processes require _____ in order to take place.

a) sunlight
b) water

c) oxygen

d) carbon dioxide

251. During which phase of meiosis do tetrads form?

a) prophase I
b) telophase I

c) metaphase II

d) anaphase II

252. In which of the following ways is meiosis Similar to mitosis?

a) one parent cell makes four daughter cells
b) one parent cell makes two daughter cells

c) it occurs in eukaryotic cells

d) daughter cells are not alike

253. The release of energy from food molecules in the absence of oxygen is called

a) lactic acid fermentation
b) alcoholic fermentation

c) aerobic respiration

d) anaerobic respiration

254. A reactant in glycolysis is

a) ethyl alcohol
b) glucose

c) pyruvic acid

d) lactic acid

255. The term cleavage furrow refers to

a) mitosis in plant cells
b) mitosis in animal cells

c) cytokinesis in plant cells

d) cytokinesis in animal cells

256. Asexual reproduction is

a) reproduction by two parents asexually
b) reproduction by one parent by fertilization

c) reproduction by one parent by cell division

d) reproduction by two parents by regeneration

257. What are sexual reproductive cells called?

a) homologous pairs
b) autosomes

c) gametes

d) chromosomes

258. The breakdown of organic compounds to produce ATP is known as

a) cellular respiration
b) lactic acid fermentation

c) alcoholic fermentation

d) photosynthesis

259. A good classification system does all of the following except

a. show relationships
b. show evolutionary trends

c. create confusion

d. use one name for an organism

260. Which of the following taxonomic categories refers only to plants?

a. phylum
b. class

c. division

d. kingdom

261. The main criterion used by Linnaeus to classify organisms is their

a. phylogeny
b. taxonomy

c. morphology

d. habitat

263. The evolutionary history of an organism is its

a. morphology
b. taxonomy

c. classification

d. phylogeny

264. Prokaryotes DO have a cell membrane but DO NOT have a

a) nucleus
b) single cell

c) ribosome

d) cell wall

265. Bacteria are classified into Two Kingdoms: Kingdom eubacteria and Kingdom

a) methanogens
b) cyanobacteria

c) archaebacteria

d) Gram-negative bacteria

266. Bacteria that capture energy from the sunlight are

a) photoautotrophic bacteria
b) chemoautotrophic bacteria

c) saprophytic bacteria

d) methanogens

267. Which of the following associations Incorrectly describes an Archaebacteria and its characteristics?

a) extreme halophile-high salt environments
b) thermoacidophile-hot, acidic environments

c) methanogen-aerobic environments

d) methanogen-human intestinal tract

268. What is the Krebs cycle?

a) the second phase of anaerobic respiration
b) the second phase of aerobic respiration

c) the third phase of aerobic respiration

d) the third phase of anaerobic respiration

269. The conversion of pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and ethanol is called

a) lactic acid fermentation
b) alcoholic fermentation

c) gasohol conversion

d) glycolysis

270. During the S phase of interphase, the chromosomes of the cell

a) replicate
b) are destroyed

c) condense

d) triple

271. DNA replication results in

a) brother chromatids
b) triple chromatids

c) sister chromatids

d) sister chromatins

272. Bacterial cells pick up and incorporate DNA from dead bacterial cells in a process called

a) transformation
b) transduction

c) conjugation

d) binary fission

273. Gram-negative bacteria that can perform plantlike photosynthesis and release oxygen are called

a) thermoacidophiles
b) cyanobacteria

c) methanogens

d) actinomycetes

274. Actinomycetes

a) archaebacteria that are spiral shaped
b) proteobacteria that causes tooth decay

c) produce many antibiotics

d) gram-negative bacteria that are photosynthetic

275. Which of the following is a beneficial effect of certain bacteria?

a) nitrogen fixing
b) the synthesis of insulin

c) nutrient cycling

d) All of the above.

276. It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacteria infection
because

a) Gram-negative bacteria are not killed by many antibiotics
b) Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases

c) Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working

d) Gram-positive bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics

277. What equally divides chromatids between offspring cells?

a) cleavage furrow
b) mitotic spindles

c) interphase

d) anaphase

278. Between cell divisions, the DNA in a eukaryotic cell is uncoiled and spread out; in this form it is called

a) chromatid
b) chromatin

c) chromosomes

d) sister chromatids

279. Which of the following events occurs during a synapsis?

a) replication of the DNA
b) appearance of spindle fibers

c) division of the cytoplasm

d) pairing of homologues

280. During cell division, the DNA in a eukaryotic cell is tightly packed and coiled into structures called

a) centromeres
b) histones

c) haploids

d) chromosomes

281. Humans have 46 chromosomes in all cells except sperm and egg cells. How many of these chromosomes are autosomes?

a) 2
b) 23

c) 44

d) 46

282. During meiosis I, homologous pairs

a) join together
b) separate

c) cross over

d) undergo mitosis

283. By accepting electrons and protons, the oxygen used in aerobic respiration turns into

a) CO₂
b) H₂O

c) C₆H₁₂O₆

d) ATP

284. The term "aerobic" in aerobic processes means the process requires

a) ATP
b) oxygen

c) carbon monoxide

d) lactic acid

285. The anaerobic process of splitting glucose and forming two molecules of pyruvic acid is called

a) fixation
b) fermentation

c) lactic acid

d) glycolysis

286. In oogenesis, a diploid reproductive cell divides meiotically to produce

a) one diploid gamete
b) four diploid gametes

c) one haploid gamete

d) four haploid gametes

287. Prokaryotic cells reproduce by a process called

a) mitosis
b) meiosis

c) binary fusion

d) binary fission

288. The fibers that extend from the centromere to centrosome during mitosis are called

a) polar fibers
b) spindle fibers

c) kinetochore fibers

d) binary fibers

289. Gram-positive bacteria

a) appear purple after Gram staining
b) have a thicker layer of peptidoglycan

c) frequently cause diseases that cannot be cured by antibiotics

d) All of the above are true.

290. Gram positive bacteria differ from Gram-negative bacteria in

a) their response to the Gram stain
b) the make up of their cell walls

c) their susceptibility to antibiotics

d) All of the above.

291. Bacterial cells typically lack

a) a cell membrane
b) mitochondria

c) a cell wall

d) a chromosome

292. Genetic recombination in bacteria always involves

a) viruses
b) transfer of one or more plasmids

c) transfer of DNA through a conjugation bridge

d) transfer of genes between bacterial cells

293. The single cell that results from sexual reproduction is the

a) zygote
b) gamete

c) autosomes

d) daughter cell

294. If an organism has 12 chromosomes in each body cell, how many chromosomes would you expect to find in the organism's gametes?

a) 4
b) 6

c) 10

d) 12

295. A poison that is released from the outer membrane of dead Gram-negative bacteria is called

a) a pathogen
b) an exotoxins

c) an endotoxins

d) a broad-spectrum toxin

296. Which of the following types of bacteria would you be most likely to find in very salty water?

a) chemoautotrophs
b) extreme halophile

c) cyanobacteria

d) thermoacidophile

297. Bacteria that obtain their energy from inorganic compounds are

a) photoautotrophic bacteria
b) chemoautotrophic bacteria

c) saprophytic bacteria

d) cyanobacteria

298. Bacteria that can survive only in the absence of oxygen are called

a) obligate aerobes
b) obligate anaerobes

c) facultative anaerobes

d) thermophilic

299. How do Rhizobium help plants?

a) through parasitism
b) by fixing nitrogen

c) by producing toxin

d) by fixing oxygen

300. Histones are proteins that

a) are found only in prokaryotic cells
b) aid in controlling the activity of regions of DNA

c) aid in the packing of DNA in eukaryotic cells

d) All of the above.

301. Spermatogenesis results in

a) four haploid cells
b) four diploid cells

c) one haploid cell

d) one diploid cell

302. Bacterial diseases of the intestines are usually transmitted by

a) sneezes and coughs
b) direct contact

c) contaminated food and water

d) contaminated wounds

303. Which of the following is Not a mechanism of action of an antibiotic?

a) inhibiting cell wall synthesis
b) inhibiting conjugation

c) inhibiting protein synthesis

d) inhibiting DNA synthesis

304. Glycolysis takes place

a) in the cytosol
b) in the mitochondria

c) only if oxygen is present

d) only if oxygen is absent

305. The process of glycolysis and anaerobic pathways is called

a) aerobic respiration
b) fermentation

c) glycolysis

d) cytosol

306. The location of electron transport chain in prokaryotes

a) cytosol
b) mitochondria

c) nucleus

d) cell membrane

307. What structure Not found in animal cells forms along the midline of a dividing plant cell?

a) cleavage furrow
b) chloroplast

c) cell plate

d) kinetochore

308. Each offspring cell produced by binary fission contains

a) half the chromosomes of the original cell
b) twice as many chromosomes as the original cell

c) an identical copy of the original cell's chromosomes

d) an independent assortment of the original cell's chromosomes

309. The process by which food molecules are broken down to release energy is called

a) fermentation
b) respiration

c) transpiration

d) digestion

310. Lactic acid fermentation forms lactic acid from

a) carbon dioxide
b) pyruvic acid

c) sodium hydroxide

d) citric acid

311. Glycolysis begin with glucose and produces

a) PGAL
b) lactic acid

c) acetyl CoA

d) pyruvic acid

312. The efficiency of glycolysis is approximately

a) 0.35 %
b) 3.5 %

c) 35 %

d) 350 %

313. Processes that occur in the absence of oxygen are said to be

a) aerobic
b) acidic

c) mitochondria

d) anaerobic

314. The assembling of microtubules that make up the spindle fibers occurs

a) during telophase
b) after mitosis

c) during prophase

d) before mitosis

315. Matching pairs of chromosomes in a diploid cell are

a) homologous pairs
b) haploids

c) diploids

d) zygotes

316. The energy efficiency of aerobic respiration (including glycolysis) is approximately

a) 7 %
b) 50 %

c) 66 %

d) 100 %

317. Cellular respiration in the presence of oxygen is called

a) fermentation
b) anaerobic respiration

c) glycolysis

d) aerobic respiration

318. The species identifier denoting the species of the leopard frog, Rana pipiens, is

a. leopard
b. frog

c. Rana

d. pipiens

319. In the scientific name of an organism, the first part is the

a. species identifier
b. variety

c. subspecies

d. genus

320. The appearance of an organism is its

a. genotype
b. phenotype

c. genotype ratio

d. phenotype ratio

321. To determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant phenotype, you would cross that individual with one that is

a. heterozygous dominant
b. homozygous dominant

c. heterozygous recessive

d. homozygous recessive

322. In a dihybrid cross between individual with the genotype RRYY and an individual with the genotype rryy, all of the offspring with have the genotype

a. RRYY
b. RrYY

c. RrYy

d. rryy

e. RRyy

323. A segment of DNA that controls a particular hereditary trait is called a(n)

a. genotype
b. heredity

c. allele

d. trait

e. gene

324. An alternate form of a gene is called a(n)

a. genotype
b. heredity

c. allele

d. trait

e. gene

325. The genetic makeup of an organism is called its

a. genotype
b. heredity

c. allele

d. trait

e. phenotype

326. A contrasting form of a hereditary characteristic is called a(n)

a. genotype
b. heredity

c. allele

d. trait

e. gene

327. The transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring is called

a. homozygous dominant
b. allele

c. heredity

d. genotype

e. heterozygote

328. Having two similar, dominant alleles for a trait is called

a. homozygous dominant
b. monohybrid cross

c. heterozygous

d. phenotype

e. genotype

329. An organism having two different alleles for a trait is called

a. heterozygote
b. homozygous dominant

c. genotype

d. monohybrid cross

e. phenotype

330. A cross involving one pair of contrasting traits is called

a. homozygous dominant
b. genotype

c. heterozygous

d. phenotype

e. monohybrid cross

331. A trait is any characteristic that can be passed

a. from plants to animals
b. from parent to offspring

c. from one species to another

d. through a cell membrane

332. Mendel called a trait that did not show in a hybrid a

a. parental trait
b. codominant trait

c. dominant trait

d. recessive trait

e. None of the above.

333. Mendel hypothesized that each trait is controlled by a factor, now called a

a. gene
b. mate

c. hybrid

d. dominance

e. None of the above.

334. What are different versions of a gene for the same trait?

a. alleles
b. phenotypes

c. dihybrids

d. true-breeding

335. The law of segregation states that, during meiosis, each pair of alleles

a. stick together
b. is tripled

c. separates

d. becomes pure-bred

e. None of the above.

336. An allele that expresses itself in a hybrid is a(n)

a. recessive allele
b. independent assortment

c. allele pair

d. dominant allele

337. The actual genetic makeup of an organism is called its

a. phenotype
b. homozygous type

c. heterozygous type

d. genotype

338. The law of independent assortment states what?

a. Half of an organism's gametes have one allele per pair.
b. One allele is always dominant.

c. Gene pairs sort randomly and independently of each other.

d. Gene pairs sort always in the same manner.

e. None of the above.

339. An organism in which two alleles for a trait are different is

a. heterozygous
b. homozygous

c. genotypic

d. phenotypic

e. None of the above.

340. Suppose you have found a new species of plant. Some of the plants have yellow flowers, and some have red flowers. You cross a red flowering plant with a yellow flowering plant. All of the offspring have orange flowers. Suggest a possible genotype for the offspring.

a. RR
b. Rr

c. R'R'

d. rr

341. A trait occurring in 400 offspring out of a total of 1,600 offspring has a probability of

a. 0.04
b. 0.25

c. 0.50

d. 0.75

e. None of the above.

342. A heterozygous individual would have the following genotype.

a. pp
b. YY

c. Zz

d. Any of the above.

e. None of the above.

343. A homozygous individual would have the following genotype.

a. Pp
b. YY

c. Zz

d. None of the above.

344. In a monohybrid cross between a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, one would predict the offspring to be

a. 3:4 homozygous dominant
b. 1:4 homozygous recessive

c. 2:4 heterozygous

d. all heterozygous

345. In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents, one would expect the offspring to be

a. 1 pp : 3 PP
b. 3 Pp : 1 pp

c. 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1 pp

d. all Pp

e. None of the above.

346. Segregation of alleles occurs during

a. mitosis
b. meiosis

c. fertilization

d. pollination

347. In guinea pigs, black fur is dominant. A black guinea pig is crossed with a white guinea pig. If the litter contains a white offspring, the genotype of the black haired parent is probably

a. homozygous dominant
b. heterozygous

c. homozygous recessive

d. None of the above.

348. If two parents with dominant phenotypes produce an offspring with a recessive phenotype, then probably

a. both parents are heterozygous
b. both parents are homozygous

c. one parent is heterozygous

d. one parent is homozygous

349. The scientific study of heredity is called

a. meiosis
b. crossing-over

c. genetics

d. pollination

350. The phenotype of an organism

a. represents its genetic composition
b. reflects all the traits that are actually expressed

c. occurs only in dominant pure organisms

d. cannot be seen

351. If an individual possesses two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be

a. homozygous for the trait
b. heterozygous for the trait

c. haploid for the trait

d. mutated

352. A genetic trait that appears in every generation of offspring is called

a. phenotypic
b. recessive

c. dominant

d. superior

353. Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?

a. T
b. TT

c. Tt

d. tt

354. A cross of two individuals for a single contrasting trait is called

a. monohybrid
b. dihybrid

c. dominant

d. codominant

355. The law of segregation states that

a. alleles of a gene separate from each other during meiosis.
b. different alleles of a gene can never be found in the same organism

c. each gene of an organism ends up in a different gamete

d. each gene is found on a different molecule of DNA

356. A trait that occurs in 450 individuals out of a total of 1,800 individuals occurs with a probability of

a. 0.04
b. 0.25

c. 0.50

d. 0.75

e. 1.00

357. The difference between a monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross is that

a. monohybrid crosses involve traits for which only one allele exists, while dihybrid traits involved two alleles
b. monohybrid crosses involved self-pollination, while dihybrid crosses involve cross-pollination.

c. monohybrid crosses involve one gene; dihybrid crosses involve two genes.

d. dihybrid crosses require two Punnett squares; monohybrid crosses need only one.

358. The principle that states that one factor may mask the effect of another factor is the principle of

a. dominance
b. recessiveness

c. phenotypic

d. genotypic

e. None of the above.

359. How many different phenotypes can be produced by a pair of codominant alleles?

a. 1
b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5

360. The likelihood that a specific event will occur is called

a. phenotype
b. probability

c. genotype

d. recessive

e. homozygous

370. Punnett squares are grids that show

a. the phenotypes of offspring
b. all possible results of a genetic cross

c. actual results of a genetic cross

d. only dihybrid crosses

371. In incomplete dominance, there are no

a. genetic crossings
b. homozygous phenotypes

c. dominant or recessive alleles

d. intermediate traits

372. An individual heterozygous for a trait and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait are crossed and produce offspring that are

a. all the same genotype
b. of three different phenotypes

c. of two different phenotypes

d. all of the same phenotype.

MATCHING

1. Means "Water Loving"
A. Chloroplast

2. Organisms whose cells NEVER contained a nucleus.
B. Eukaryotes

3. Consists of cytosol and organelles.
C. Nuclear Envelope

4. The "Brain" of the Cell. Stores DNA
D. Ribosomes

5. The sit where ribosomes are produced.
E. Chlorophyll

6. Converts sunlight, CO₂ and water into sugars.
F.   Rough ER

7. The double layer membrane surrounding the nucleus
G. Lysosomes

8. Mechanisms for transporting molecules through a lipid bilayer
H. Hydrophilic

9. The site of protein synthesis.
I.   Cell Wall

10. A pigment that absorbs energy in sunlight.
J. Cytoplasm

11. Means "Water Fearing"
K. Cytoskeleton

12. Cell membranes consist of two phospholipid layers called a ___________.
L.   Smooth ER

13. Functions primarily as an intercellular highway.
M. Nucleus

14. Provide structure and support in plant cells
N. Mitochondria

15. Maintains the three-dimension structure of animal cells.
O. Hydrophobic

16. Are short hairlike projections, often numerous.
P. Vacuole

17. Site of processing, packaging and secretion of cell products.
Q. Nucleolus

18.   Type of ER that does NOT have ribosomes attached.
R. Flagella

19. Site of food digestion in the cell.
S.   Plastids

20. Organisms whose cells have a nucleus.
T. Spindle fibers

21.   Long whip-like structures used for movement.
U. Prokaryotes

22. The "Powerhouse" of the cell. Transfers energy from ATP.
V. Endoplasmic Reticulum

23. Gelatin-like aqueous fluid that organelles are bathed in.
W. Cilia

24. Fluid-filled organelle that serves as a storage area for enzymes and metabolic wastes.
X. Golgi Apparatus

25   Organelles that like, like mitochondria and the nucleus, are surrounded by two membranes and contain DNA.
Y. Lipid Bilayer

26.   The type of ER that has ribosomes attached to it.
Z. Membrane Proteins

DIRECTIONS: Answer the questions below as completely and as thoroughly as possible. Answer the question in essay form (not outline form), using complete sentences. You may use diagrams to supplement your answers, but a diagram alone without appropriate discussion is inadequate. See me if you need Help, Have Problems or Questions or To Check Your Answers.

1. How does an ionic bond differ from a covalent bond?
2. Why is photosynthesis so important to life and you?

3. Why is the cell membrane said to be selectively permeable?

4. What are the differences between an Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cell?

5. What does it mean to say that diffusion eventually results in equilibrium. Give and example of how to show this.

6. Explain how the light reactions would be affected if there were no concentration gradient of protons across the thylakoid membrane.

7. Name the three substances that are produced when water molecules are broken down during the light reactions and what each substance is used for.

8. A famous scientist once said that wherever in the universe life exists, some of those life forms must be colored. Why would a scientist make such a statement?

9. Why do the leaves of some plants look green in the summer and then turn yellow, orange, or brown during the fall?

10. What would happen to a freshwater unicellular organism if its contractile vacuole stopped functioning? Explain your answer.

11. The fourth step of glycolysis yields four ATP molecules, but the net yield is only two ATP molecules. Explain this discrepancy.

12. Describe Three Types of movement among bacteria.

13. Why do protists, fungi, plants, and animals share a domain in the six-kingdom system?

14. Describe how you could determine if a dividing cell is a prokaryote or an eukaryote. What structures would you look for?

15. Define the term genetic recombination as it applies to bacteria, and List Three ways that genetic recombination occurs in bacteria.

16. What role does oxygen play in aerobic respiration? What molecule does oxygen become a part of as a result of aerobic Respiration?

17. List the levels of Classification developed by Linnaeus, from the broadest category to the most specific. What is the difference between a subspecies and a variety?

18. Explain the Difference between a Haploid Cell and a Diploid Cell?

19. List Two ways that meiosis differs from mitosis.

20. Compare and Contrast Archaebacteria with Eubacteria.

21. How does aerobic respiration ultimately depend on photosynthesis?

22. What are the six kingdoms recognized today? What do plants and fungi have in common with animals?

23. Describe the events of binary fission and what kind of organisms would use this.

24. Identify the most common shapes of eubacteria and Describe each.

25. Explain COMPLETELY the following Equations:

6CO₂ + 6H₂O + ENERGY ----> C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂
C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ ----> 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + ENERGY

26. How does the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane form a barrier to molecules?

27. Why is important for plant cells to live in a hypotonic environment?

28. Distinguish between Passive Transport and avtive Transport, AND Give Three examples of each.

29. How is osmosis related to diffusion?

30. What happens to the components of water molecules that are split during the light reactions of photosynthesis?

31. Who is the Father of Microbiology and why is he considered this?

32. What characteristics of Eukaryotic cells gives them greater capacity for specialization than Prokaryotic cells have? Explain your answer.

33. Why it is so important to a cell that things like CO₂, O₂, H₂O, ions and glucose can pass through the cell membrane by diffusion?

34. Explain how the nucleus, nucleolus, ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatus function together in protein synthesis.

35. How can you determine whether a unicellular organism is a prokaryote or a eukaryote? (Hint: What structures would you look for if it was a Eukaryote or if it was a Prokaryote?)

36. Name the plant tissue systems and organs.

37. Name the Three main components of a Eukaryotic cell and briefly describe each.

38. What are the THREE Parts of the Cell Theory?

39. Explain the difference between pinocytosis and phagocytosis.

40. How is ATP formed in photosynthesis?

41. Describe how a cell produces proteins and describe how the cell then releases those proteins.

42. A mature human red blood cell has no nucleus or mitochondria. It consists primarily of a membrane surrounding hemoglobin, the protein molecule that carries oxygen. Suggest an advantage of the simple organization of human red blood cells. How did this simple organization occur? (Hint: What process did the cell undergo?)

43. Sea water has a higher concentration of solutes than do human body cells. Explain:
Why might drinking large amounts of sea water be dangerous for humans?

44. Three red blood cells are placed in hypertonic, hypotonic, and isotonic solutions. Compare the behavior of the three cells. Explain your answer on the basis of concentration gradients, diffusion and give the name of the effects.

45. Last weekend I provided my lawn and plants with fertilizer, today, 6 days latter, they are all dead! Please help me, explain why my lawn and all my plants died.

46. Describe three differences between plant and animal cells.

47. Describe the structure of a water molecule, and explain how the electrical charge is distributed over the molecule.

48. How do autotrophs differ from heterotrophs in obtaining energy?

49. Why is it necessary for oxidation and reduction reactions to occur in pairs?

50. How does a condensation reaction differ from a hydrolysis reaction?

51. List the Six Major Characteristics of Life.

52. How does the structure of a phospholipid, linear molecules with a polar end and a nonpolar end, relate to their function in the cell membrane?

53. What is the role of enzymes in chemical reactions occurring in living things? Explain how a catalyst affects a reaction.

54. What are the different results produced by cellular division in a unicellular organism and in a multicellular organism?

55. What are the structural differences between monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides?

56. Describe the relationship between the solute, the solvent, and the concentration of a solution.

57. What is capillarity? Include defining Adhesion and Cohesion.

1. Means "Water Loving"	A. Chloroplast
2. Organisms whose cells NEVER contained a nucleus.	B. Eukaryotes
3. Consists of cytosol and organelles.	C. Nuclear Envelope
4. The "Brain" of the Cell. Stores DNA	D. Ribosomes
5. The sit where ribosomes are produced.	E. Chlorophyll
6. Converts sunlight, CO₂ and water into sugars.	F. Rough ER
7. The double layer membrane surrounding the nucleus	G. Lysosomes
8. Mechanisms for transporting molecules through a lipid bilayer	H. Hydrophilic
9. The site of protein synthesis.	I. Cell Wall
10. A pigment that absorbs energy in sunlight.	J. Cytoplasm
11. Means "Water Fearing"	K. Cytoskeleton
12. Cell membranes consist of two phospholipid layers called a ___________.	L. Smooth ER
13. Functions primarily as an intercellular highway.	M. Nucleus
14. Provide structure and support in plant cells	N. Mitochondria
15. Maintains the three-dimension structure of animal cells.	O. Hydrophobic
16. Are short hairlike projections, often numerous.	P. Vacuole
17. Site of processing, packaging and secretion of cell products.	Q. Nucleolus
18. Type of ER that does NOT have ribosomes attached.	R. Flagella
19. Site of food digestion in the cell.	S. Plastids
20. Organisms whose cells have a nucleus.	T. Spindle fibers
21. Long whip-like structures used for movement.	U. Prokaryotes
22. The "Powerhouse" of the cell. Transfers energy from ATP.	V. Endoplasmic Reticulum
23. Gelatin-like aqueous fluid that organelles are bathed in.	W. Cilia
24. Fluid-filled organelle that serves as a storage area for enzymes and metabolic wastes.	X. Golgi Apparatus
25 Organelles that like, like mitochondria and the nucleus, are surrounded by two membranes and contain DNA.	Y. Lipid Bilayer
26. The type of ER that has ribosomes attached to it.	Z. Membrane Proteins